this balance will be charged at 0% for as long as it exists. Moreover - if you do this, you will get 2% cashback on purchases as long as this balance remains from one month to the next. This looks to be too good to be true. Free loan that need never be repaid, plus 2% cashback on purchases. Is the balance xfer separate from any balance on purchases? I normally pay off my visa balance in full every month. Their explanation is given in the _link_ below - in not sufficient detail for my liking - looks like there's a financial trap lurking here to me. If anyone can explain the offer in terms that make sense, I'd be grateful! http://www.barclaycard.co.uk/About_Us/TandC/rates.html Dear Gordon, Read the T&C! The 0% balance transfer applies for the life of the balance subject to a minimum spend of £50 per month on the card, or it reverts to 6.9%. Given that any payments you then make to Barclaycard will be made towards the balance transfer first, the £50 spent will then accrue interest at the normal Barclaycard rate. You cannot choose to pay off the monies spent rather than the transferred balance! (section 5.5 of T&C). Hence you can transfer your balance at 0% but will be obliged to pay interest on the monies spent required to earn you that 0% rate. Hope this helps Marcus Marcus, Thankyou very much for your help! The rates page (
http://www.barclaycard.co.uk/About_Us/TandC/rates.html ) says 2% cashback as long as a balance is carried forward (until Dec 2004), and 0% on transferred balances for as long as it takes to pay them off. Yet on
http://www.barclaycard.co.uk/About_Us/faqs.html#charges it is stated that we will always charge interest on balance transfers In the terms and conditions (
http://www.barclaycard.co.uk/Apply/tandc.html ) 5.5 - amount paid will be applied in the following order: Against any transfer balances and promotional balances WHICH AN INTEREST RATE APPLIES TO {my emphasis} for an open ended period . I have therefore written to Barclaycard asking them to clarify these inconsistencies.